The last topic of the Roundtable was that of Christ’s impeccability. Could he have sinned? The dilemma, obviously, is that as 100% human, he could have, but as 100% God, he couldn’t have since God cannot sin. So what’s the answer?
There are several views on why he couldn’t have sinned – which is also my position – and a good systematic theology will explain why. However, one argument I have never seen presented, probably due to its being totally false nonsense, is the following. And yeah, I came up with that all by myself.
- God declared the Messiah would take the sins of the world
- For that to happen the Messiah needed to be without sin
- If there were a possibility for him to sin, there must have also been a possibility for God to be wrong in his declaration
- God is never wrong
- Therefore, Jesus could not have sinned
This is probably the most clumsy presentation of a logical argument, so please bear with me. I would really like to know where the error lies.
Edit: I think it boils down to this: If the bible said years ago I would get married on September 20, 2003, come that time, could I have chosen otherwise? It couldn’t have possibly happened otherwise because God already said it would.
I tend to think that yes, I could have chosen otherwise. It’s another example of God’s sovereignty and human freedom. I guess I answered my own question. It always helps to formulate it as a question to others; I seem to learn really well that way.
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